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How do you explain this grammar rule?

Discussion in 'English' started by Calverlan, May 10, 2011.

  1. Calverlan

    Calverlan New commenter

    Hi all,
    Was in a lesson today an covered phrases starting with "I used to ... ", I'd rather take ..." etc...
    However, although the rule is that "I used to.." holds the infinitive, an example in the book said "I got used to being"... so with the -ing form. A student picked this up and asked about all this. I wasnt sure about the rule for that.
    How do you explain this? -ing forms after you expect an infinitive?
    Thanks
     
  2. markuss

    markuss Occasional commenter

    First thought:
    It isn't the same use of "used to", is it?
    "I used to run..." = [more or less] "I ran..."
    "I got used to running..." = "I became accustomed to running..."
     
  3. As already said, the two examples are very different. The phrase "I used to..." is simply the imperfect tense, whereas "I got used to..." is a totally different construction and can take the present participle.
    Hope this helps!
     
  4. markuss

    markuss Occasional commenter

    Being a pedant, I'd just say that we don't have "imperfect tense" in English any more than we have a "conditional" or a "future".
     

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