I have recently retired (end of December). My best 3 years salary (after inflation has been taken into account), as with many teachers who have not changed posts in the last ten years, was 2010-2012 . I calculated my expected pension by multiplying each months salary by the multiplier for that month and totalling for each of the three years before averaging. This seemed logical to me as the government produce different multiplier figures for each month. However, TPS seem, from my interpretation of the data they sent me, to use the multiplier at the last date you were on a particular salary- this means they use the lowest possible multiplier for a period of that salary. In fact the multiplier used for my final salary level was the one 8 months after the taken 3 years when my salary finally increased. Is this correct? I know, on another thread, Diddy Dave was looking into this in December, but I cannot find if anyone found the answer.