I've seen a number of posts about contracts in which people have said that it is considered normal to receive a contract after you start working at a school, sometimes up to two months later. I've also seen posts where it appears an employee is deemed to have accepted the conditions (often changes) in their contract by virtue of working for the employer. Effectively acceptance by default. I've also seen posts which state that verbal acceptance of a job offer forms a contract etc. etc., no written copy is needed for this to be binding. I can't see how these things work together. If you don't get a copy of your contract until you've been working there a while, how can you be in a position to dispute anything surprising in the written contract when you receive it? Equally, how can a verbal acceptance be binding given that you're unlikely to have been told verbally of all the conditions of your written contract? Aren't you effectively agreeing to the great unknown? I'm looking for a position from January and not having taught for a few years I'm mindful of the huge changes to teachers terms and conditions with regard to (non) pay portability, academies, free schools, blah, blah, blah. I don't want to end up in a situation where I find that I've inadvertently agreed to a contract of terms and conditions that I wouldn't normally work under in any circumstances, such as requirements for Saturday catch up sessions etc. Can I reasonably ask for a written copy of the contract before I agree to accept the position / before I start / tell them my acceptance is conditional on the details contained in the contract? If that isn't reasonable, then surely I can't be held to any of the terms in it which I don't agree with, given that I wouldn't have accepted the position had I known they formed part of the contract, can I? Your thoughts appreciated!